Who is able to get his son elected as successor before his death and with Otto I. Those guys are always trouble for the first 3 non Carolingian kings cause they think the king is only primus inter pares so not really in a position to tell them anything: Grosse will Stick around for a while but the meaning does change - by the time the Carolingian reign in "Germany" ends the undoubtedly most important people are the "dukes" of Bavaria, Swabia, Franconia and Saxony If there was any doubt over who should be king they came together and made that decision. In this sense Feudalism is used in ck2 : it's basically the same everywhere from 8th to 14th century.Īs east francia it's fate was decided by the "grosse" of the realm a loosely defined selection of people ranging from dukes to important bishops or people who held certain court offices. The fact that it had different forms basically everywhere and that it changed over time doesn't matter for most. The problem is that for most people Feudalism is a word that in a way discribes the ruling system in medieval Europe period. It would be quicker to list realms that do - chiefly France, Jerusalem and the Latin Empire England doesn't, Poland doesn't, Scandinavia doesn't, the HER and ERE don't, Sicily doesn't. If you look at the history MOST realsm don't conform to CKII's current model. Of course, in reality the English King controlled not only his vassals but also their vassals and by the 14th Century Feudalism in England had largely broken down with most Barons reporting directly to the King even if they weren't strictly "Tenant in Chief" over their Fief. Prior to Conclave, the system was more biased in favour of Late-English Feudalism where the King finds it very difficult to pass new laws but has quite a lot of control over how much his vassals are allowed to fight (King's Peace) and how much they provide in levies and taxes.
#MY FEUDAL LORD EXCERPT FULL#
It makes no sense that they won't fight to the full extent of their capacity, seeing as they'll be found guilty of treason should the rebellion be lost.Īs others have said - it's a question of how the game models "Fedualism".Īt present the system is really only appropriate for Frankish Feudalism - the King and a small group of vassals have control over how the Kingdom is run, what laws are passed etc., but the King has very little direct control over what his vassals actually do, day to day. This can make the initial claim on Zealand a local struggle rather than a full blown war involving everyone from Gascony to Tuscany.įinally, (although admittedly at risk of drifting off topic) faction members should all be called into their wars as allies rather than simply use provide vassal levies. The lieges can be asked for support in such a war, but should not be able to request the aid of their other vassals. Duke of Flanders and Duke of Holland) should be able to declare war directly on each other, without involving their lieges. Vassals could also offer to join the liege in wars (similar to offering money if they have the war chest ambition) in exchange for favor and/or money/titles.Īdditionally, I think that direct vassals to independent rulers (i.e. ask call to arms, which grants an accepting vassal a favor, or force a call to arms by calling in a favor).
![my feudal lord excerpt my feudal lord excerpt](https://5.imimg.com/data5/JM/OM/MY-2793148/my-feudal-lord-book-500x500.png)
Perhaps greatly reducing the levies provided by vassals and allowing the top liege to use call to arms with the favor mechanic (i.e. That said, using call to arms to some extent even in feudal realms could be interesting. Then again, the same case can be made about for instance France, which was arguably even more decentralized and dependent on the goodwill of her vassals. The Holy Roman Empire, while more centralized and powerful in the medieval era than in the early modern period, is certainly too effective in organizing the armies of the realm.